Monday, June 17, 2024

Paragraph 159

Likewise, Muḥammad, in another verse, uttereth His protest against the people of that age. He saith: “Although they had before prayed for victory over those who believed not, yet when there came unto them He of Whom they had knowledge, they disbelieved in Him. The curse of God on the infidels!” Reflect how this verse also implieth that the people living in the days of Muḥammad were the same people who in the days of the Prophets of old contended and fought in order to promote the Faith, and teach the Cause, of God. And yet, how could the generations living at the time of Jesus and Moses, and those who lived in the days of Muḥammad, be regarded as being actually one and the same people? Moreover, those whom they had formerly known were Moses, the Revealer of the Pentateuch, and Jesus, the Author of the Gospel. Notwithstanding, why did Muḥammad say: “When He of Whom they had knowledge came unto them”—that is Jesus or Moses—“they disbelieved in Him”? Was not Muḥammad to outward seeming called by a different name? Did He not come forth out of a different city? Did He not speak a different language, and reveal a different Law? How then can the truth of this verse be established, and its meaning be made clear?

 

Here it is worth noting the questions asked by the uncle of the Bab, the questions that led to the revelation of this book, particularly the third question. In it the uncle says that the Bab did not appear in conformity to the traditions and reports of the Imams. He specifically says that we cannot interpret these things metaphorically, at the expense of the literal interpretation, for this would just lead to confusion. This, of course, is a great question. It is one that many people have when encountering a new faith.

He begins with the word "Likewise". Likewise to what? To the previous quote, in paragraph 157. They are both of a theme, namely equating those who denied Him to those who denied Moses and Jesus.

In this paragraph Baha'u'llah takes this concept that the uncle questioned and steps it back from the Imams to Muhammad, Himself. He points out in both this quote, and the previous one, that a literal interpretation of what Muhammad said is manifestly impossible. In these quotes from the Qur'an, Muhammad denounces those who have denied the Messengers of God. They are, He says or implies, the same people every dispensation. But as they lived thousands of years apart, this is obviously impossible.

Beyond that, He is also pointing out that Muhammad likens Himself to these other Messengers, but was from a different city, spoke a different language, revealed different laws. How could we call them the same?

It is, in essence, the same question the uncle asked of the Bab, but asked of Muhammad, Whom the uncle already recognizes and reveres. He seems to accept it of Muhammad without realizing it. Here Baha'u'llah gently points out that it is the same question he is asking of the Bab, the same type of question asked of all the Messengers of the past.

He asks us to reflect on this. How can it be? How are we to make sense of it, if we take it literally?

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